I found a bug in reference sequence. After voiding the transactions, the customer payment reference got rolled back as well. i.e my payment number was CPT00006 and after voiding this payment, when I go to make new payment, I get same number instead of CPT00007.

Deven

   Cheque 100

Then 3 days later, they realize that the cheque bounced, so they take the money out of my account.

   Cheque bounced -100.

If I just cancel the payment in FA, then real bank statement and one in bank doesn't match.
The real one show

Cheque 100
Cheque bounced -100

the FA one shows
Customer A 0.

So my idea was to create this -100 entry in FA by me "paying" the customer. I can do that by going in bank/payment and select customer.
At this stage the transaction on the customer side are

1 - Payment 100
2 - Invoice 100
3 - Payment -100

So the customer still owes me 100. However payment-1 is allocated to invoice-2 wereas invoice-2 hasn't been paid.

In fact it works,  so I put my answer here for other people having the problem.
Payment 3 doesn't appear in the list of payment to allocate, because it's a payment from me so I can't allocate it to an invoice.
However it acts like an invoice, so if I can reallocate payment-1 from invoice-2 to payment-3.

You can try to test various options in the Training Co. Or the demo program.

Joe

Is it possible to enter a payment to the customer (to cancel its payment) and allocate it to the corresponding invoice (to cancel the payment again ) ?

/Elax

/Joe

You will have to void the payment.

/Joe

I'll have this problem, unfortunately voiding messes up the bank statement (as you have two entries on the real bank statement one for the check in , and one for the

/Joe